Research Methodology Questions for Ph. D. Entrance Exams Practice Set

Part A: Basics of Research

  1. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of research?
    A) Systematic process
    B) Objective approach
    C) Subjective interpretation
    D) Logical analysis
    Answer: C

  2. The primary aim of research is:
    A) Financial gain
    B) Knowledge creation
    C) Political influence
    D) Entertainment
    Answer: B

  3. In research, facts and figures collected are called:
    A) Theory
    B) Data
    C) Hypothesis
    D) Sampling
    Answer: B

  4. Which type of research aims to solve practical problems?
    A) Basic research
    B) Applied research
    C) Historical research
    D) Fundamental research
    Answer: B

  5. In research terminology, the universe or total group of interest is called:
    A) Population
    B) Sample
    C) Parameter
    D) Statistic
    Answer: A

  6. The first step in research is:
    A) Data collection
    B) Formulating a research problem
    C) Report writing
    D) Hypothesis testing
    Answer: B

  7. Which research uses numerical data and statistical tools?
    A) Qualitative research
    B) Quantitative research
    C) Mixed methods
    D) Case study
    Answer: B

  8. Which research studies the same group over time?
    A) Cross-sectional
    B) Longitudinal
    C) Experimental
    D) Action research
    Answer: B

  9. Which of these is a non-probability sampling method?
    A) Random sampling
    B) Stratified sampling
    C) Snowball sampling
    D) Cluster sampling
    Answer: C

  10. Which is NOT a source of primary data?
    A) Questionnaire
    B) Interviews
    C) Observation
    D) Government census reports
    Answer: D

  11. The set of values representing a population parameter is called:
    A) Sample
    B) Universe
    C) Variable
    D) Statistic
    Answer: B

  12. An in-depth study of a single individual or group is called:
    A) Survey
    B) Case study
    C) Correlational study
    D) Experimental study
    Answer: B

  13. A review of related literature helps to:
    A) Copy earlier research
    B) Avoid duplication and refine problem
    C) Skip hypothesis formulation
    D) Shorten research time
    Answer: B

  14. Which of the following is NOT a purpose of research?
    A) Exploration
    B) Description
    C) Explanation
    D) Personal bias
    Answer: D

  15. Which term refers to a small-scale trial run of a research project?
    A) Hypothesis
    B) Pilot study
    C) Sampling
    D) Pre-test
    Answer: B

Part B: Hypothesis & Variables 

  1. The null hypothesis (H₀) states:
    A) There is no relationship between variables
    B) There is a relationship between variables
    C) The theory is correct
    D) The sample is representative
    Answer: A

  2. The variable that is manipulated in an experiment is called:
    A) Dependent variable
    B) Independent variable
    C) Extraneous variable
    D) Moderator variable
    Answer: B

  3. A research question is converted into a testable statement called:
    A) Theory
    B) Hypothesis
    C) Fact
    D) Law
    Answer: B

  4. Which type of hypothesis states the expected direction of the relationship?
    A) Null hypothesis
    B) Non-directional hypothesis
    C) Directional hypothesis
    D) Statistical hypothesis
    Answer: C

  5. Variables that interfere with the relationship between independent and dependent variables are:
    A) Moderator variables
    B) Control variables
    C) Extraneous variables
    D) Dependent variables
    Answer: C

  6. Hypothesis testing is done to:
    A) Prove the researcher's belief
    B) Accept or reject a hypothesis based on evidence
    C) Increase research cost
    D) Make conclusions without evidence
    Answer: B

  7. In research, an operational definition:
    A) Defines variables in theoretical terms
    B) Defines variables in measurable terms
    C) Defines variables in abstract terms
    D) Does not define variables
    Answer: B

  8. When a hypothesis is tested using statistics, it is called:
    A) Conceptual hypothesis
    B) Empirical hypothesis
    C) Statistical hypothesis
    D) Null hypothesis
    Answer: C

  9. A Type I error occurs when:
    A) The null hypothesis is wrongly rejected
    B) The null hypothesis is wrongly accepted
    C) The sample size is too small
    D) Data is missing
    Answer: A

  10. A Type II error occurs when:
    A) The null hypothesis is wrongly accepted
    B) The null hypothesis is wrongly rejected
    C) Data collection is faulty
    D) The sample is biased
    Answer: A

  11. The probability of rejecting a true null hypothesis is denoted by:
    A) α (alpha)
    B) β (beta)
    C) p-value
    D) r-value
    Answer: A

  12. A correlation coefficient (r) value close to +1 indicates:
    A) Weak positive relationship
    B) Strong positive relationship
    C) No relationship
    D) Strong negative relationship
    Answer: B

  13. Which research examines cause-and-effect relationships?
    A) Correlational
    B) Experimental
    C) Descriptive
    D) Historical
    Answer: B

  14. In hypothesis testing, the p-value tells:
    A) The probability of obtaining results as extreme as observed
    B) The size of the sample
    C) The research cost
    D) The mean difference
    Answer: A

  15. When two variables change together but are not causally related, it is:
    A) Causation
    B) Correlation
    C) Association
    D) Randomization
    Answer: C

Part C: Sampling Techniques

  1. In which sampling method is the population divided into homogeneous subgroups and samples taken from each?
    A) Simple random sampling
    B) Stratified sampling
    C) Cluster sampling
    D) Quota sampling
    Answer: B

  2. In cluster sampling, the population is divided into:
    A) Groups based on characteristics, then all elements are selected
    B) Groups (clusters) and some clusters are randomly selected
    C) Individuals randomly
    D) Groups based on strata
    Answer: B

  3. Which sampling method uses the researcher’s judgment to select units?
    A) Purposive sampling
    B) Systematic sampling
    C) Random sampling
    D) Snowball sampling
    Answer: A

  4. Systematic sampling involves selecting every:
    A) nth element from the population list
    B) Randomly selected element
    C) Last element
    D) Only even-numbered element
    Answer: A

  5. Snowball sampling is useful when:
    A) The population is large and well known
    B) The population is hard to reach or hidden
    C) The sample must be random
    D) The population is homogeneous
    Answer: B

  6. The main advantage of probability sampling is:
    A) Less cost
    B) Time-saving
    C) Representativeness of the population
    D) Smaller sample sizes
    Answer: C

  7. The difference between a parameter and a statistic is:
    A) Parameter is from sample, statistic is from population
    B) Parameter is from population, statistic is from sample
    C) Both are from population
    D) Both are from sample
    Answer: B

  8. The risk of sampling error decreases when:
    A) Sample size increases
    B) Sample size decreases
    C) Data is incomplete
    D) Randomization is avoided
    Answer: A

  9. Which is NOT a non-probability sampling method?
    A) Quota sampling
    B) Purposive sampling
    C) Simple random sampling
    D) Snowball sampling
    Answer: C

  10. Sampling frame refers to:
    A) The population list from which sample is drawn
    B) A tool for data collection
    C) A statistical formula
    D) The sampling design
    Answer: A

  11. Which sampling method selects units at fixed intervals after a random start?
    A) Cluster
    B) Systematic
    C) Stratified
    D) Quota
    Answer: B

  12. Non-response error occurs when:
    A) Selected participants fail to respond
    B) Data is wrongly entered
    C) Sample size is too large
    D) The questionnaire is too short
    Answer: A

  13. Sampling bias occurs when:
    A) Random selection is done
    B) Certain groups are overrepresented or underrepresented
    C) The sample is large enough
    D) The sample is representative
    Answer: B

  14. Which sampling method is best for studying rare diseases?
    A) Random sampling
    B) Purposive sampling
    C) Snowball sampling
    D) Cluster sampling
    Answer: C

  15. In proportional stratified sampling:
    A) Each stratum has the same sample size
    B) Sample size in each stratum is proportional to the population size
    C) Sample size is equal for all strata regardless of population size
    D) Only one stratum is studied
    Answer: B

Part D: Data Collection & Tools

  1. Which method collects data from existing sources?
    A) Primary data
    B) Secondary data
    C) Experimental data
    D) Observational data
    Answer: B

  2. A structured questionnaire has:
    A) Only open-ended questions
    B) Predetermined set of questions with fixed responses
    C) No specific order
    D) Only subjective questions
    Answer: B

  3. Which data collection method gives real-time behavior observation?
    A) Interview
    B) Questionnaire
    C) Observation
    D) Case study
    Answer: C

  4. A focus group typically involves:
    A) 2–3 people
    B) 6–12 people
    C) 20–30 people
    D) More than 50 people
    Answer: B

  5. Telephone surveys are:
    A) Expensive but detailed
    B) Quick and inexpensive but limited in depth
    C) Time-consuming
    D) Rarely used in research
    Answer: B

  6. Which is NOT a method of qualitative data collection?
    A) Interview
    B) Observation
    C) Survey with Likert scale
    D) Focus group discussion
    Answer: C

  7. Scaling technique that measures agreement on a 5- or 7-point scale:
    A) Thurstone scale
    B) Guttman scale
    C) Likert scale
    D) Semantic differential scale
    Answer: C

  8. The main disadvantage of open-ended questions is:
    A) Lack of flexibility
    B) Difficulty in coding and analysis
    C) High cost
    D) Respondent bias
    Answer: B

  9. Participant observation means:
    A) The researcher remains detached
    B) The researcher actively engages in the group being studied
    C) The study is experimental
    D) Data is collected by questionnaire
    Answer: B

  10. Which is NOT a source of error in data collection?
    A) Interviewer bias
    B) Respondent dishonesty
    C) Faulty sampling frame
    D) Accurate measurement
    Answer: D

  11. A research instrument is valid if it:
    A) Measures what it is intended to measure
    B) Produces consistent results
    C) Saves time
    D) Is easy to use
    Answer: A

  12. Reliability of a research instrument refers to:
    A) Consistency of results
    B) Accuracy of measurement
    C) Length of instrument
    D) Simplicity of language
    Answer: A

  13. Triangulation in research means:
    A) Using three data collection methods to validate findings
    B) Using three variables
    C) Using three hypotheses
    D) Dividing sample into three groups
    Answer: A

  14. Pretesting a questionnaire helps to:
    A) Save costs
    B) Identify unclear or biased questions
    C) Increase sample size
    D) Avoid hypothesis testing
    Answer: B

  15. The Hawthorne effect refers to:
    A) Respondents changing behavior when they know they are being studied
    B) Researcher bias in data analysis
    C) Sampling error
    D) Non-response error
    Answer: A

Part E: Data Analysis & Statistics

  1. Which measure of central tendency is most affected by extreme values?
    A) Mean
    B) Median
    C) Mode
    D) None
    Answer: A

  2. The median is:
    A) The average of all values
    B) The middle value when data is arranged in order
    C) The most frequent value
    D) The difference between highest and lowest values
    Answer: B

  3. Standard deviation measures:
    A) Central tendency
    B) Spread or dispersion of data
    C) Relationship between variables
    D) Sampling error
    Answer: B

  4. A positive skew means:
    A) Tail is on the right side
    B) Tail is on the left side
    C) Symmetrical distribution
    D) No skewness
    Answer: A

  5. In a normal distribution, the percentage of values within ±1 standard deviation is approximately:
    A) 50%
    B) 68%
    C) 95%
    D) 99%
    Answer: B

  6. Chi-square test is used for:
    A) Testing differences between means
    B) Testing association between categorical variables
    C) Predicting values
    D) Testing variance equality
    Answer: B

  7. t-test is used for:
    A) Comparing means between two groups
    B) Comparing more than two groups
    C) Testing correlation
    D) Regression analysis
    Answer: A

  8. ANOVA is used to:
    A) Compare means of more than two groups
    B) Compare proportions
    C) Test normality
    D) Test reliability
    Answer: A

  9. Correlation coefficient (r) ranges between:
    A) 0 and 1
    B) –1 and +1
    C) –∞ and +∞
    D) 0 and 100
    Answer: B

  10. Regression analysis is used for:
    A) Describing data
    B) Predicting one variable based on another
    C) Comparing group means
    D) Calculating median
    Answer: B

  11. Non-parametric tests are used when:
    A) Data is normally distributed
    B) Sample size is large
    C) Data does not meet parametric assumptions
    D) Data is interval scale
    Answer: C

  12. The p-value < 0.05 indicates:
    A) Result is statistically significant
    B) Null hypothesis is true
    C) Sample size is too small
    D) Data is skewed
    Answer: A

  13. Type I error probability is represented by:
    A) α
    B) β
    C) p
    D) r
    Answer: A

  14. Type II error probability is represented by:
    A) α
    B) β
    C) p
    D) r
    Answer: B

  15. Reliability coefficient closer to 1 indicates:
    A) Low reliability
    B) High reliability
    C) No reliability
    D) Randomness
    Answer: B

  16. Content validity refers to:
    A) The extent to which an instrument covers all aspects of the concept
    B) The correlation between variables
    C) The ability to predict outcomes
    D) The accuracy of results
    Answer: A

  17. In statistics, degrees of freedom (df) relate to:
    A) Number of independent values that can vary
    B) Number of samples
    C) Sample mean
    D) Data range
    Answer: A

  18. Outliers in data:
    A) Should always be removed
    B) Are extreme values that may distort analysis
    C) Have no effect on results
    D) Indicate data is correct
    Answer: B

  19. Scatter plot is used to:
    A) Show distribution of frequencies
    B) Show relationship between two variables
    C) Show central tendency
    D) Show ranking
    Answer: B

  20. Histogram is used to display:
    A) Continuous frequency distribution
    B) Categorical data
    C) Percentages only
    D) Ratios only
    Answer: A

Part F: Research Ethics & Report Writing

  1. Informed consent means:
    A) Participants are forced to join research
    B) Participants agree after understanding purpose, risks, and rights
    C) Researcher hides purpose
    D) Participants pay to join
    Answer: B

  2. Plagiarism is:
    A) Copying someone else’s work without acknowledgment
    B) Quoting with citation
    C) Paraphrasing with reference
    D) Original writing
    Answer: A

  3. Fabrication of data means:
    A) Analyzing data wrongly
    B) Making up false data
    C) Omitting some results
    D) Misinterpreting data
    Answer: B

  4. Falsification of data means:
    A) Changing or omitting data to mislead
    B) Using data from secondary sources
    C) Using large samples
    D) Writing the report
    Answer: A

  5. The main purpose of research ethics is to:
    A) Increase cost
    B) Protect participants and maintain integrity
    C) Shorten research time
    D) Avoid hypothesis testing
    Answer: B

  6. Which section of a research report presents findings?
    A) Introduction
    B) Literature review
    C) Results
    D) References
    Answer: C

  7. In a research paper, the review of literature is placed:
    A) At the beginning after introduction
    B) At the end after conclusion
    C) Only in appendices
    D) Nowhere
    Answer: A

  8. The abstract of a research report should:
    A) Be more than 10 pages
    B) Summarize objectives, methods, results, and conclusions
    C) Contain only references
    D) Contain raw data
    Answer: B

  9. References in a research report should:
    A) Follow a standard citation style
    B) Be in any order
    C) Be optional
    D) Be copied from other reports
    Answer: A

  10. The discussion section of a report should:
    A) Restate results without interpretation
    B) Interpret results in light of literature and objectives
    C) Contain only tables
    D) Contain acknowledgments
    Answer: B

  11. Which citation style is used in medical sciences?
    A) APA
    B) MLA
    C) Vancouver
    D) Chicago
    Answer: C

  12. Which is NOT part of the IMRAD structure?
    A) Introduction
    B) Methods
    C) Results
    D) Discussion
    E) References
    Answer: E (References are separate from IMRAD)

  13. Which section states the problem and research objectives?
    A) Introduction
    B) Methods
    C) Results
    D) Conclusion
    Answer: A

  14. Which is the correct order in the research process?
    A) Data collection → Problem definition → Analysis → Report writing
    B) Problem definition → Literature review → Hypothesis formulation → Data collection → Analysis → Report writing
    C) Hypothesis formulation → Data collection → Literature review → Analysis
    D) Literature review → Data collection → Problem definition → Analysis
    Answer: B

  15. Which of these is NOT a referencing style?
    A) APA
    B) Harvard
    C) MLA
    D) OCR
    Answer: D

  16. An appendix in a research report contains:
    A) Main findings
    B) Raw data, questionnaires, or extra details
    C) Introduction
    D) Summary
    Answer: B

  17. Which is the correct purpose of the conclusion section?
    A) Present new data
    B) Summarize findings and implications
    C) List all references
    D) Describe methods
    Answer: B

  18. Peer review in research ensures:
    A) Faster publication
    B) Quality and credibility of research
    C) Reduced costs
    D) Avoidance of citations
    Answer: B

  19. Conflict of interest in research means:
    A) Disagreement between researchers
    B) Researcher has financial or personal interest affecting objectivity
    C) Different results obtained
    D) No funding available
    Answer: B

  20. The primary audience for a research thesis is:
    A) Friends and family
    B) Academic community and examiners
    C) General public only
    D) Social media followers
    Answer: B

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